TheStrategyLab.com Price Action Trading Support Forum

Thanks very much for sharing these first three chapters. Before I post my DOK, I have some questions about Chapter 2...
1) On page 33/65 under ‘Bearish swing point’, it says “Also, the first WRB Hidden GAP must have shared at least one tick with the range of the volatility contraction to prevent looking like a continuation price action instead of as a swing point.”
In the chart download/file.php?id=1053 , there is not any tick shared with the first WRB hidden gap and the volatility contraction if I define the WRB hidden gap as the area between the range of the candle before and candle after the WRB. In this case I do not have a swing point #2. Is this right?
2) On page 34/65 under Strong Continuation #1, it says “Defined as producing two or more same color WRB Hidden GAPs (they don't need to occur consecutive as in back to back) in which the first WRB Hidden GAP is the breakout interval above the most recent reaction high (bullish continuation)..” For the chart download/file.php?id=1063 , looking at the bar that is 3 bars behind the first WRB hidden gap (labelled on chart), should that bar be the most recent reaction high instead?
3) I just wanted to clarify if there is a definition for volatility contraction? Is it intervals that have less range than a prior WRB until another WRB forms? Or less range than a prior WRB hidden gap until another WRB hidden gap forms? Or is it an interval that has less range than the prior 3 intervals immediately before it?
4) I just wanted to verify, that for a bullish breakout of a volatility contraction, it would mean closing above the range (including wicks) encompassed by the volatility contraction?
5) On page 36/65 “The v1 WRB must occur at/after the key market event. However, if using the v2 WRB as the WRB Zone…it must occur at/after the key market event.”. So for the chart on page 37 download/file.php?id=1340 The EIA Petroleum Status Report occurring at v2 was sufficient to be in agreement with “The v1 WRB must occur at/after the key market event.”
6) For strong continuation #2, can I summarize that if the KME occurs at v2, both v2 and v1 have the potential to be used as WRB zones, but if the KME occurs at v1, only v1 has the potential to be used as a WRB zone? Is this right?

Thanks very much in advance for any clarification you can give.

My apologies for the above post, for the page numbers I was referring to the pdf from Jan 2014, which I now realize was outdated. The page numbers listed below now match the word document here ( viewtopic.php?f=119&t=718 ) I've edited my questions about Chapter 2...

1) On page 32/65 under ‘Bearish swing point’, it says “Also, the first WRB Hidden GAP must have shared at least one tick with the range of the volatility contraction to prevent looking like a continuation price action instead of as a swing point.”
In the chart download/file.php?id=1053 , there is not any tick shared with the first WRB hidden gap and the volatility contraction if I define the WRB hidden gap as the area between the range of the candle before and candle after the WRB. If I was using the 'bodies' definition of WRB hidden gaps, in this case I do not have a bearish swing point #2? Is this right?
2) On page 33/65 under Strong Continuation #1, it says “Defined as producing two or more same direction WRB Hidden GAPs (they don't need to occur consecutive as in back to back) in which the first WRB Hidden GAP is the breakout interval above the most recent reaction high (bullish continuation)..” For the chart download/file.php?id=1063 , looking at the bar that is 3 bars behind the first WRB hidden gap that is labelled on the chart, could the high of this bar be the most recent reaction high?
3) I just wanted to ask if there is a general definition for volatility contraction and when it starts and ends? Looking at the blue highlighted area in download/file.php?id=1340 my guess is that it is intervals that are of less range than the v2 hidden gap interval, and is in effect until the v1 hidden gap interval occurs that closes above the volatility range? Is this correct? If so what happens if an interval occurs that does not breakout of the volatility range, yet is larger than the v2 hidden gap interval bar?
4) I just wanted to verify, that for a bullish breakout of a volatility contraction, it would mean a candle closing above the range of volatility contraction (volatility contraction range is including wicks, but breakout has to have a bar close above)? Is this right? or is it that a bar has to form that is larger than any of the bars within the volatility contraction?
5) Please ignore my prior question #5
6) For strong continuation #2, can I summarize that if the KME occurs at v2, both v2 and v1 have the potential to be used as WRB zones, but if the KME occurs at v1, only v1 has the potential to be used as a WRB zone? Is this right?